'2 for 1' voting....could it work? (user search)
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  '2 for 1' voting....could it work? (search mode)
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Author Topic: '2 for 1' voting....could it work?  (Read 11432 times)
Fritz
JLD
Junior Chimp
*****
Posts: 5,668
United States


« on: May 05, 2004, 11:57:17 AM »

Hyopthetically, even if Nader did do this, I don't think it would work the way the article writer suggests.

Lets suppose a state ends up with:
Bush 48%
Kerry 47%
Nader 3%
Other 2%

In this situation, I think Bush ends up being the winner, even if Kerry and Nader had the same slate of electors and their combined total ends up winning.  Kerry and Nader were on the ballot seperately, so their votes must be tallied as seperate from each other.

I see a court case looming if Dems tried to say the Kerry slate of electors won, in this hypothetical.
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Fritz
JLD
Junior Chimp
*****
Posts: 5,668
United States


« Reply #1 on: May 06, 2004, 07:53:23 AM »

The state legislature does NOT choose the electors- they pass laws that determine how electors are selected.  State legislatures could, theoretically, choose electors (and have been known to in the distant past), if they passed a law saying that is how electors will be chosen in that state.  That law would have to be on the books before any "election" took place, you can't change the rules after the election.  What the Florida legislature tried to do, before the SC ruled on Bush vs. Gore, was unconscionable, and I think a violation of its own state law.
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