When would you be enfranchised?
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  When would you be enfranchised?
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Author Topic: When would you be enfranchised?  (Read 2395 times)
minionofmidas
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« Reply #25 on: February 09, 2010, 11:23:28 AM »

The relevant question is not since when I would be entitled to vote (it's hard to say... quite possibly since just about forever) but since when I would be entitled to vote for the position that really matters (1918).
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Meeker
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« Reply #26 on: February 09, 2010, 11:36:26 AM »

The citizens of the District of Columbia are still disenfranchised.
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« Reply #27 on: February 09, 2010, 05:38:26 PM »

France: probably 1848 with universal suffrage and the censitary vote removed. Not sure when in Canada, probably (assuming ownership of property) during BNA.
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afleitch
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« Reply #28 on: February 09, 2010, 05:55:51 PM »

1867 at the earliest. Possibly not till as late as 1918
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k-onmmunist
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« Reply #29 on: February 09, 2010, 06:01:31 PM »
« Edited: February 09, 2010, 06:06:26 PM by Avant-Garde »

I'm almost certain I would have been enfranchised in 1884 but it could have been 1867 come to think of it. Latest would have been 1918 obviously. Have we got any experts on UK franchise law here? Smiley
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k-onmmunist
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« Reply #30 on: February 09, 2010, 06:09:18 PM »


Heh, he would only have been able to vote in Britain after 1858 at the earliest.
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Хahar 🤔
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« Reply #31 on: February 09, 2010, 08:33:24 PM »

I'm almost certain I would have been enfranchised in 1884 but it could have been 1867 come to think of it. Latest would have been 1918 obviously. Have we got any experts on UK franchise law here? Smiley

Given that Al doesn't know, I think we're out of luck.
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Filuwaúrdjan
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« Reply #32 on: February 09, 2010, 09:13:47 PM »

I'm almost certain I would have been enfranchised in 1884 but it could have been 1867 come to think of it. Latest would have been 1918 obviously. Have we got any experts on UK franchise law here? Smiley

Given that Al doesn't know, I think we're out of luck.

Probably. The main thing was householder status, though.
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True Federalist (진정한 연방 주의자)
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« Reply #33 on: February 09, 2010, 09:47:17 PM »

1670 or 1729 or 1776 depending on what standard you use for "enfranchisement".
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useful idiot
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« Reply #34 on: February 10, 2010, 12:52:56 AM »

Well, my family owned quite a bit of land in NC back in 1789(some of which they still own) so I don't know if that counts. I own no property, and my grandmother is Indian(not sure what that means).
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k-onmmunist
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« Reply #35 on: February 10, 2010, 06:32:39 AM »

Alright guys, I did a little research and in the boroughs, you had to hold property worth £10 under the 1832 Reform Act. This translate into modern pound values (i.e. 2008) at:

£777.36  using the retail price index 
£1,004.15  using the GDP deflator 
£8,245.35  using the average earnings 
£12,490.44  using the per capita GDP 
£31,435.45  using the share of GDP 

This seems surprisingly low. It would mean that most people today would have been able to vote from 1832 onwards... surely that can't be right?
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k-onmmunist
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« Reply #36 on: February 10, 2010, 06:55:42 AM »

If the above is true, it turns out I would have been enfranchised in 1835, after the borough reform act was passed, giving Stockport municipal borough status.
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minionofmidas
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« Reply #37 on: February 10, 2010, 07:14:43 AM »

Alright guys, I did a little research and in the boroughs, you had to hold property worth £10 under the 1832 Reform Act. This translate into modern pound values (i.e. 2008) at:

£777.36  using the retail price index 
£1,004.15  using the GDP deflator 
£8,245.35  using the average earnings 
£12,490.44  using the per capita GDP 
£31,435.45  using the share of GDP 

This seems surprisingly low. It would mean that most people today would have been able to vote from 1832 onwards... surely that can't be right?

Ah, fun with currency conversion onto a different technological plane. It doesn't work.

Obviously everybody owning a modern house would have been owning property worth over 10 pounds then - he would own an incredible marvel that nobody else could copy, after all. -_-
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Filuwaúrdjan
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« Reply #38 on: February 10, 2010, 07:16:59 AM »

Yes, that's very true.

Decimalisation might fucks things up mightily as well, though I don't know to what extent any calculators try to take that into account. Though, perhaps more to the point, hardly anyone owned their own homes in Britain until the interwar period.
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k-onmmunist
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« Reply #39 on: February 10, 2010, 07:19:00 AM »

Yes, that's very true.

Decimalisation might fucks things up mightily as well, though I don't know to what extent any calculators try to take that into account. Though, perhaps more to the point, hardly anyone owned their own homes in Britain until the interwar period.

Apparently, it takes into account decimalisation. Before that, the standard (from 1431 onwards) was 40 shillings, but it was never adjusted for inflation, so the amount of people able to vote increased.... very slowly.
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minionofmidas
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« Reply #40 on: February 10, 2010, 07:19:19 AM »

Decimalisation might fucks things up mightily as well, though I don't know to what extent any calculators try to take that into account.
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k-onmmunist
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« Reply #41 on: February 10, 2010, 07:25:05 AM »

Actually, I don't own-occupy my house, so it would probably be 1867 when I would have been enfranchised, when the rental qualifications were introduced.
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Filuwaúrdjan
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« Reply #42 on: February 10, 2010, 07:27:35 AM »


Yes... but they're in a looming pile of hilariously disorganised box files. I'll have a look through them when I have time (ie; later this afternoon).
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Filuwaúrdjan
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« Reply #43 on: February 10, 2010, 12:10:38 PM »


Yes... but they're in a looming pile of hilariously disorganised box files. I'll have a look through them when I have time (ie; later this afternoon).

Right. I didn't find the sheet I was looking for, but found quite a few numbers in a notebook. All figures are rates of owner-occupation.

First Set - 1945: 26%, 1966: 47%, 1983: 63%.

Second Set - all figures from 1946. England and Wales: 27%, Midlands 32%, South & East 29%, London 23%.

Third Seat - estimates from various towns and cities in 1900. Central Birmingham: 1.3%*, York 6%, Gateshead 17%, Sunderland 27%. The differences seem to have more to do with industrial and occupation structures and the sort of houses in the places*, rather than class. Presumably class division would be apparent if a middle class borough had been included.

*Figure will have been higher across the whole city, of course. Presumably Edgbaston isn't included.
**The most common form of housing in Sunderland at that point was a sort of terraced bungalow, while Central Birmingham was entirely courts. Also, Sunderland (along with most of the rest of County Durham) had an unusually large 'Labour Aristocracy', while Central Birmingham was slumland (though there were distinct types of slum...)
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minionofmidas
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« Reply #44 on: February 11, 2010, 04:49:17 AM »

Thanks.
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phk
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« Reply #45 on: February 11, 2010, 06:48:49 PM »


The Luce–Celler Act of 1946 allowed Indians to become citizens, so I would be able to vote then.

This.
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Bacon King
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« Reply #46 on: February 11, 2010, 07:00:34 PM »

1820s, Jacksonian reforms.
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Deldem
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« Reply #47 on: February 12, 2010, 03:36:37 PM »

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GMantis
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« Reply #48 on: February 19, 2010, 10:56:51 AM »

1879, when the Tarnovo Constitution came in force.
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Scam of God
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« Reply #49 on: February 19, 2010, 11:04:25 AM »

1818
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