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Title: have racially polarized elections existed for longer then once thought? Post by: freepcrusher on August 27, 2012, 04:48:36 PM A common thought is that there were no racially polarized elections in the U.S. until the 1970s. But looking back into history, I find that the 1928 election was very ethnically polarized. A lot of areas in what I call the "peripheral south" and the lower midwest have always been very sensitive of northern/catholic democrats and in 1928 those areas (like most of Oklahoma, west TX, eastern NM, SW MO, TN, KY, Southern IL and IN) really freaked out over Al Smith and voted heavily against him.
There is an old movie called "Elmer Gantry" with Burt Lancaster that is set in rural Kansas in the 1920s. There is a very xenophobic attitude that they are "old stock Americans" and that they are part of the christian majority of this nation and those swarthy looking immigrants in the big cities are not Christians and are a bunch of drunks. In those days the southern and eastern europeans probably played the same role as the blacks and hispanics do today. Title: Re: have racially polarized elections existed for longer then once thought? Post by: J. J. on August 27, 2012, 06:48:21 PM In a way, no, because blacks couldn't vote in large numbers. In terms of some type of ethnic/religious divide, easily since 1884. As an issue, obviously, since 1852.
And yes, the Irish in particular did, even to the point that the Irish were compared to monkeys. Title: Re: have racially polarized elections existed for longer then once thought? Post by: ○∙◄☻¥tπ[╪AV┼cVê└ on September 04, 2012, 10:28:29 PM In a way, no, because blacks couldn't vote in large numbers. In terms of some type of ethnic/religious divide, easily since 1884. As an issue, obviously, since 1852. And yes, the Irish in particular did, even to the point that the Irish were compared to monkeys. I presume that Milliard Fillmore's votes in 1856 had some pretty strong ethnic correlations. Title: Re: have racially polarized elections existed for longer then once thought? Post by: J. J. on September 04, 2012, 11:35:03 PM In a way, no, because blacks couldn't vote in large numbers. In terms of some type of ethnic/religious divide, easily since 1884. As an issue, obviously, since 1852. And yes, the Irish in particular did, even to the point that the Irish were compared to monkeys. I presume that Milliard Fillmore's votes in 1856 had some pretty strong ethnic correlations. Yes, I think so. |