Which of these is most likely true regarding the spread of Islam in South Asia? (user search)
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  Which of these is most likely true regarding the spread of Islam in South Asia? (search mode)
Pages: [1]
Poll
Question: Answer as many as you like
#1
The bulk of Muslims are descendants of migrants from the Iranian plateau or Arabs.
 
#2
Muslims sought conversion through jihad. Forced conversions
 
#3
Conversions occurred for non-religious reasons of pragmatism and patronage such as social mobility among the Muslim ruling elite or for relief from taxes.
 
#4
Conversion was a result of the actions of Sunni Sufi saints and involved a genuine change of heart.
 
#5
Conversion came from Buddhists and the en masse conversions of lower castes for social liberation and as a rejection of the oppressive Hindu caste strictures.
 
#6
. A combination, initially made under duress followed by a genuine change of heart.
 
#7
As a socio-cultural process of diffusion and integration over an extended period of time into the sphere of the dominant Muslim civilization and global polity at large. Like a more peacful version of #1.
 
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Total Voters: 14

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Author Topic: Which of these is most likely true regarding the spread of Islam in South Asia?  (Read 2647 times)
phk
phknrocket1k
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Posts: 12,906


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E: 1.42, S: -1.22

« on: July 20, 2010, 07:34:04 PM »

Choose whatever you like.
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phk
phknrocket1k
Atlas Icon
*****
Posts: 12,906


Political Matrix
E: 1.42, S: -1.22

« Reply #1 on: July 31, 2010, 01:23:21 AM »


#2 would be an inaccurate depiction.  Islam really entered Southeast Asia through traders and merchants, not warlords.

Some Sultanates may have gone to war with non-Islamic kingdoms, but I'm not really familiar with any mass-conversations by the sword.

#7 is the most true imo.  "As a socio-cultural process of diffusion and integration over an extended period of time into the sphere of the dominant Muslim civilization and global polity at large. Like a more peacful version of #1."

Anyone mentioning "spheres" and "polities" knows something about pre-modern Southeast Asia.  http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mandala_(Southeast_Asian_history)



Huh

This is about South Asia (modern-day Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka) not Southeast Asia.
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phk
phknrocket1k
Atlas Icon
*****
Posts: 12,906


Political Matrix
E: 1.42, S: -1.22

« Reply #2 on: August 03, 2010, 02:38:34 AM »

In Malaysia and Indonesia, it was due to the Koran being a rather useful uniform commercial code, that gave trade advantages to the Sultans, and because the Portuguese were such vicious predatory religious fanatics, while the Muslims just wanted to make money. How times have changed. In India, as I understand it, many of the Muslims were former Hindu untouchables, that decided to opt out of a religion were they were treated like sh**t. Read my friend Bill Bernstein's book on the history of trade, and you can find out all about this stuff. I read the whole book in one sitting. I could not put it down.

You know Bernstein?
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