Is there some subconscious sexism, the idea that men are treated as the "default" group and so we think of the "male vote" as being roughly synonymous with the overall vote, but the "female vote" as a separate category?
This is the best explanation. Also, given that most leaders (of each party) are male, it can indicate the GOP's failure to appeal to women.
But the point of this thread is that it is equally valid to say it indicates the Democrats' failure to appeal to men (indeed, more so, since men deviate from the average slightly more than women).
That's like saying Democrats fail to appeal to white people.
Yes, of course. The 2010 landslide was fundamentally built upon whites fleeing the Democratic party.
It also helps wildly shift from one party to another when a midterm election has an embarrassingly low rate of turnout in comparison to other first world democracies.
