Hungary: A Weimar for the 21st Century?

[Filuwaúrdjan]

The problem is that MSZP have basically collapsed as an organized entity... iirc polls have them behind or level with Jobbik.

Last Election
Opinion Poll

Yeah, their credibility took a huge hit for obvious reasons. And, for obvious reasons, it's harder for a postcommunist party to recover credibility than a normal social democratic party. So while they don't seem to have fallen any further, discontented voters seem to be moving towards... urgh.

[Filuwaúrdjan]

Stop embarrassing yourself, J. J. It's actually quite painful to watch.

[Filuwaúrdjan]

You really have no idea of what happened in 1932, do you?

I have a reasonable idea and even made maps once.

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The point is that Fidesz is also an extremist party (at least by the standards of a normal democratic country) which has been governing in an increasingly authoritarian and alarming manner.

[Filuwaúrdjan]

Neoliberal? In the 1930s? Anyway, no, the various Communist parties of the period were not any kind of 'alternative' to anything. That was part of the problem. Thinking otherwise is buying into Soviet propaganda.

[Filuwaúrdjan]

To point out the obvious/what everyone else is thinking, etc...

J.J., the reason why 'Weimar' was used as the title for the thread was almost certainly because the name has a certain resonance in this sort of context. Whereas, 'Horthy' doesn't mean much to anyone these days (if it ever meant much at all) and, anyway, is only arguably more 'relevant' because of geography.

[Filuwaúrdjan]

I get the impression that my post was read and not really read. Sigh.

It is very close to a repeat of the late 1930's Hungary, in terms of party domination.

Orban is claiming to rule as a Regent? You can certainly draw parallels with Hungarian dictatorships past if you like, but the fact remains that the name 'Horthy' means nothing to most people.

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Well, no, it was much messier than that. Unless you're counting the SPD as extreme left, which would be insane. But, to repeat, the word 'Weimar' is almost certainly only being used because it evokes something, not as a direct pitch-perfect comparison.

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The only difference between 'Hungary slipping towards Fascism' and 'Hungary: A Weimar for the 21st Century?' would be that the one would be using more evocative (and emotive) language than the other.

[Filuwaúrdjan]

Austria is almost certainly the best example. There the Christian Social and Social Democratic parties traded power.

No they didn't. The SDAPÖ formed one government (1918-1920) and participated in another (1920-1921) and that was that. Austrian politics before Austrofascism was characterised by extreme polarisation between Red Vienna and the permanent CS government nationally.

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No it was not. Anyway, I can see there's no point going any further...