100% of the popular vote
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March 28, 2024, 08:46:24 PM
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Author Topic: 100% of the popular vote  (Read 1022 times)
buritobr
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« on: March 15, 2014, 10:20:37 PM »

In 1832, Andrew Jackson had 100% of the popular vote in Georgia (20750 votes) and in Mississippi (5750 votes). How it was possible?
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Flake
JacobTiver
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« Reply #1 on: March 15, 2014, 10:46:50 PM »

Maybe no other candidates were on the ballot in those states?
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ElectionsGuy
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« Reply #2 on: March 15, 2014, 11:46:20 PM »

They just didn't have other people on the ballot.

What I find interesting about that election is the difference between TN and KY. KY (which Clay won by around 9 points), and then TN where Jackson romped Clay 95-5. Clay's home state was Kentucky, but I mean, does a state boundary really make that much of a difference?
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fartboy
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« Reply #3 on: March 16, 2014, 02:39:14 AM »

um... voter fraud!
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Sol
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« Reply #4 on: March 17, 2014, 07:44:31 AM »

They just didn't have other people on the ballot.

What I find interesting about that election is the difference between TN and KY. KY (which Clay won by around 9 points), and then TN where Jackson romped Clay 95-5. Clay's home state was Kentucky, but I mean, does a state boundary really make that much of a difference?

In those days it most definitely did.
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Stranger in a strange land
strangeland
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« Reply #5 on: March 17, 2014, 08:21:07 AM »

They just didn't have other people on the ballot.

What I find interesting about that election is the difference between TN and KY. KY (which Clay won by around 9 points), and then TN where Jackson romped Clay 95-5. Clay's home state was Kentucky, but I mean, does a state boundary really make that much of a difference?

In those days it most definitely did.
Elections weren't really democratic in those days, especially in that part of the country.
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Filuwaúrdjan
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« Reply #6 on: March 17, 2014, 11:42:56 AM »

Wasn't that back in the days when candidates printed their own ballots? Unless you were organised in the area, no one could vote for you for very practical reasons...
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