why do poors typically have a lot of kids?

[🦀🎂🦀🎂]

Just wondering, but why do you call poor people "poors"? Surely you realise how crass and dehumanising that sounds?

https://uselectionatlas.org/AFEWIKI/index.php/Opebo_speak

In that case, apologies to Walter!

[angus]

I'm not aware of them having significantly more kids than anyone else

It's pretty well documented.  

For example, in 2010 the annual fertility rate for those with annual household incomes under $10K is about 99 (per 1000 women).  For households with about $30K annual income the fertility rate is about 67.  For households with about $60K the fertility rate is about 54.

It also tracks somewhat with GDP by country.  There are a few exceptions of course.  Here's a plot of a different sort of fertility rate (total children per adult woman) versus GDP:



If you put that on a semilog plot with raw data on the vertical axis and ln(GDP) on the horizontal axis, it is easier to see the downward slope.  

There are a number of scholarly articles out there attempting to explain this phenomenon.  A google search will turn up too many.  I prefer my own rather low-brow analysis.

[DemPGH]

Yeah, it's also the case that higher education levels, particularly among women, mean less children. In the end, I think that affluence and education mean that people have more options and choices in life, and I'm sure that that affects their goals and what they do in life. You know, they're more likely to leave the vicinity in which they grew up, wait to have children, not have them, travel the world, etc. You can find anecdotal and documented evidence pretty easily. 

[Indy Texas]

I'm not aware of them having significantly more kids than anyone else

It's pretty well documented.  

For example, in 2010 the annual fertility rate for those with annual household incomes under $10K is about 99 (per 1000 women).  For households with about $30K annual income the fertility rate is about 67.  For households with about $60K the fertility rate is about 54.

It also tracks somewhat with GDP by country.  There are a few exceptions of course.  Here's a plot of a different sort of fertility rate (total children per adult woman) versus GDP:



If you put that on a semilog plot with raw data on the vertical axis and ln(GDP) on the horizontal axis, it is easier to see the downward slope.  

There are a number of scholarly articles out there attempting to explain this phenomenon.  A google search will turn up too many.  I prefer my own rather low-brow analysis.

I'm talking about poor Americans. I'm not aware of any statistic showing poor Americans have significantly more children than Americans as a whole in the modern era.