U.S. senate to consider changing Marijuana status from Class 1 to Class 2

[muon2]

High potential for abuse? Based on what?

The argument is that people are willing to break the law to get marijuana, so that constitutes a high potential for abuse. In any case a move to schedule 2 is long overdue, and clinical studies can provide the necessary evidence to further move marijuana to more appropriate classifications.

[muon2]

High potential for abuse? Based on what?

The argument is that people are willing to break the law to get marijuana, so that constitutes a high potential for abuse.

You phrased it in a manner that suggests that's not your argument, so please don't take this personally, but that is some serious Naso style logic.

You are correct, it's not my argument, but I've heard phrases like it many times, including from anti-marijuana lobbyists, but I have no one to attribute it to. I just thought the thread should have an example of what is said.

[muon2]

High potential for abuse? Based on what?

The argument is that people are willing to break the law to get marijuana, so that constitutes a high potential for abuse.

You phrased it in a manner that suggests that's not your argument, so please don't take this personally, but that is some serious Naso style logic.

You are correct, it's not my argument, but I've heard phrases like it many times, including from anti-marijuana lobbyists, but I have no one to attribute it to. I just thought the thread should have an example of what is said.

What does  high potential for abuse mean? That folks will buy it illegally? If so, that is rather circular, and as it is legalized by more and more states, it won't be illegal to buy it, except in the eyes of the Feds.

I don't claim it's a good argument, but I think it comes from the meaning of the word abuse. Medically abuse means intentionally taking something outside of its prescribed dose or indicated use. If the indicated dose is zero because it's schedule I then any use of it is abuse, so in that case it seems to be self-fulfilling that if lots of people are using it then there is a high potential of abuse.

If it is medically available as schedule II, marijuana would still be subject to medical abuse in the technical sense if people are acquiring it to use when not medically prescribed. It would be considered the same as someone using opiate pain meds when not prescribed. The presence and extent of abuse is different from the question of harm caused by abuse.

[muon2]

High potential for abuse? Based on what?

The argument is that people are willing to break the law to get marijuana, so that constitutes a high potential for abuse.

You phrased it in a manner that suggests that's not your argument, so please don't take this personally, but that is some serious Naso style logic.

You are correct, it's not my argument, but I've heard phrases like it many times, including from anti-marijuana lobbyists, but I have no one to attribute it to. I just thought the thread should have an example of what is said.

What does  high potential for abuse mean? That folks will buy it illegally? If so, that is rather circular, and as it is legalized by more and more states, it won't be illegal to buy it, except in the eyes of the Feds.

I don't claim it's a good argument, but I think it comes from the meaning of the word abuse. Medically abuse means intentionally taking something outside of its prescribed dose or indicated use. If the indicated dose is zero because it's schedule I then any use of it is abuse, so in that case it seems to be self-fulfilling that if lots of people are using it then there is a high potential of abuse.

So if someone uses alcohol for a non-medical use, it is abuse?

Alcohol is not scheduled substance and not generally the subject of a prescription. Alcohol can be abused, and the CDC and major medical organizations define alcohol abuse based on the amount and the circumstances of the user. Here's the CDC definition.

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