When speaking Spanish, how do you pronounce the letters "c" and "z"?

[Indy Texas]

I was taught at a fairly young age to pronounce both with an "/s/" sound, and have always heard native Spanish speakers in Texas do so. I had not been exposed to the "ceceo" phenomenon until having a Spanish professor in college who I assumed for a while had some sort of speech impediment.

[Joe Republic]

The Mexican way, though the Castilian way is pleasing to the ear.

[solarstorm]

I depends on where you want to speak Spanish.
I Mexico you pronounce caza and casa, e.g., the same way: like an s.
In Spain you have to pronounce the z in caza similar to a th. The s in casa, however, is to be pronounced like an s.
Edit:

I didn't read your question properly. The pronunciation of the c also depends on the following vowel.

[Adam Griffin]

Option 1. I only do what Option 3 says when I'm making fun of Spaniards.

Wait, so you pronounce all Cs as /s/, even at the beginning of the word? Yeah, I can see why your professor thought that...

[Indy Texas]

Option 1. I only do what Option 3 says when I'm making fun of Spaniards.

Wait, so you pronounce all Cs as /s/, even at the beginning of the word? Yeah, I can see why your professor thought that...

Sorry, I meant where they're in the middle of a word.

I mean like in Barcelona - do you pronounce it "bar-se-LOH-na" or "bar-the-LOH-na"?

[Adam Griffin]

Option 1. I only do what Option 3 says when I'm making fun of Spaniards.

Wait, so you pronounce all Cs as /s/, even at the beginning of the word? Yeah, I can see why your professor thought that...

Sorry, I meant where they're in the middle of a word.

I mean like in Barcelona - do you pronounce it "bar-se-LOH-na" or "bar-the-LOH-na"?

OK, that makes more sense. Yeah, I'll also do it unironically when I'm speaking fast and don't want to interrupt my flow (since it's easier/quicker as a non-native to use 'th' instead of 's' in a lot of cases). I don't ever do it for Z, though. It's also not helpful that I had way too many friends and Spanish teachers who were Cuban and Puerto Rican, who also sometimes pronounce it as such (along with gutting S entirely).  

[TDAS04]

I once had a Spanish professor who studied in Spain.  It sounded like she pronounced Barcelona as Barthelona and gracias as Grathias.  My Mexican one, though, pronounced the /s/ sound.

[Associate Justice PiT]

     Option two, as a proud son of Spain.

[Mr. Smith]

option two.

The original source is usually the best to try and emulate when speaking a foreign language.

[Хahar 🤔]

The way it is spoken in Mexico and the Caribbean, naturally.

The original source is usually the best to try and emulate when speaking a foreign language.

Why?

[Associate Justice PiT]

The way it is spoken in Mexico and the Caribbean, naturally.

The original source is usually the best to try and emulate when speaking a foreign language.

Why?

     As much as I support the King's Spanish, I try to avoid this line of argumentation since it would imply that British English should be learned over American English. I don't really approve of that.

[Sol]

Also arguing that any one dialect of a language is the original source is idiotic.

[Mr. Smith]

Also arguing that any one dialect of a language is the original source is idiotic.

Maybe with English, but with languages that have an Academy/Preservation Board regulated with that dialect [usually the Capital area, though I understand Florence is the place with Italy] in mind that make all the dictionaries and grammar books...less so.

[Small L]

The "original source" no longer exists. The Spanish spoken in Spain has not remained unchanged for the last 500 years. Besides, there has always been plenty of variety within the country itself. Languages change.

[Niemeyerite]

Pronuncio los dos como "/th/" (Madrileño; not everywhere in Spain people pronounce these letters the same way we do in Madrid).

[politicus]

Why would an American pronounce it otherwise than the Mexican way?
Mexicans would be the most likely Spanish speakers to communicate with in most of the US and Cuban/Puerto Rican Spanish is close to Mexican.
There would be little point in learning Castillian Spanish for an American unless you wanted to work in Spain for some reason. It is not like Spaniards don't understand Latin American Spanish.

[Sol]

Also arguing that any one dialect of a language is the original source is idiotic.

Maybe with English, but with languages that have an Academy/Preservation Board regulated with that dialect [usually the Capital area, though I understand Florence is the place with Italy] in mind that make all the dictionaries and grammar books...less so.

But just because there's some academy "regulating" the language doesn't mean that that's the original source or some sort of ur-dialect, which is what that phrase implies. Oftentimes, dialects can be more conservative than the standard [1], as is the case with English. Many Appalachian dialects retain a three-way distinction in demonstratives (yonder) which is quite an archaic feature, for example, even though, as far as I know, speakers of GA or RP rarely use it.

And in the case of Spanish, although it is true that seseo is a change, it is also true that it is much more common than distinción in the Spanish speaking world (including parts of Spain)--particularly in the US context. And it is accepted by various of the "academies" of the Spanish-speaking world. To me at least, distinción should be used mostly by those with a primary interest in Spain.


[1] This should not be overstated though. All languages change.

[Mr. Smith]

Also arguing that any one dialect of a language is the original source is idiotic.

Maybe with English, but with languages that have an Academy/Preservation Board regulated with that dialect [usually the Capital area, though I understand Florence is the place with Italy] in mind that make all the dictionaries and grammar books...less so.

But just because there's some academy "regulating" the language doesn't mean that that's the original source or some sort of ur-dialect, which is what that phrase implies. Oftentimes, dialects can be more conservative than the standard [1], as is the case with English. Many Appalachian dialects retain a three-way distinction in demonstratives (yonder) which is quite an archaic feature, for example, even though, as far as I know, speakers of GA or RP rarely use it.

And in the case of Spanish, although it is true that seseo is a change, it is also true that it is much more common than distinción in the Spanish speaking world (including parts of Spain)--particularly in the US context. And it is accepted by various of the "academies" of the Spanish-speaking world. To me at least, distinción should be used mostly by those with a primary interest in Spain.


[1] This should not be overstated though. All languages change.

So I stand corrected, keep in mind I haven't really practiced Spanish in a long time and my background is in Germanic languages, which are decidedly more rigid...and in one case has barely changed at all.

[Sol]

Also arguing that any one dialect of a language is the original source is idiotic.

Maybe with English, but with languages that have an Academy/Preservation Board regulated with that dialect [usually the Capital area, though I understand Florence is the place with Italy] in mind that make all the dictionaries and grammar books...less so.

But just because there's some academy "regulating" the language doesn't mean that that's the original source or some sort of ur-dialect, which is what that phrase implies. Oftentimes, dialects can be more conservative than the standard [1], as is the case with English. Many Appalachian dialects retain a three-way distinction in demonstratives (yonder) which is quite an archaic feature, for example, even though, as far as I know, speakers of GA or RP rarely use it.

And in the case of Spanish, although it is true that seseo is a change, it is also true that it is much more common than distinción in the Spanish speaking world (including parts of Spain)--particularly in the US context. And it is accepted by various of the "academies" of the Spanish-speaking world. To me at least, distinción should be used mostly by those with a primary interest in Spain.


[1] This should not be overstated though. All languages change.

So I stand corrected, keep in mind I haven't really practiced Spanish in a long time and my background is in Germanic languages, which are decidedly more rigid...and in one case has barely changed at all.

Even Icelandic has changed. And I'd point ya down the road to English if you think Germanic languages are some bastion of conservatism...

[🐒Gods of Prosperity🔱🐲💸]

Why would an American pronounce it otherwise than the Mexican way?

because it's funner.