The Buckley ruling on self-expenditures by wealthy individuals was certainly a constitutional and not a statutory ruling. Since CU flowed from Buckley, how does one interpret it as a statutory to constitutional shift?
Sorry, I should have clarified my point more. The original Citizens United case was a simple statutory ruling that was heard at the Supreme Court. The majority chose not to rule in that case. Instead, they chose, on their own, to rehear the case on constitutional grounds. In the original case, both sides were content with hearing the case on limited statutory grounds. I think there's a difference between a constitutional case working its way up through the court system as opposed to the Court deciding on its own to rehear a case in order to move it from a statutory issue to a constitutional one.