Grammatical question

[Frodo]

Have the rules changed?  I was taught in grade school that when you're indicating a possession on a noun that already happens to end with an 's', you only have to affix an apostrophe, like so:

e.g. 1:

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So as to avoid unnecessary repetition.  

Yet it seems journalists are putting in an extra 's':

e.g. 2:

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Am I wrong?

[Mike Thick]

Here's something interesting [sic] to read about it:

http://www.ccc.commnet.edu/grammar/possessives.htm

[Јas]

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Apostrophe#Singular_nouns_ending_with_an_.22s.22_or_.22z.22_sound