(b) The seller negligently supplies the product to a person whom he knows, or reasonably should know, is likely to use said product in an unlawful manner involving unreasonable risk to others;
This is ripe for abuse.
Why is that? It seems to me that all that's saying is that sellers should do a background check before selling someone a gun.
If the reasonably should know is striken, there is no problem, but while it remains there, if I sell you a gun, how am I "reasonably" suposed to know if you are going to use it unlawfully or not?
If precedent is right, this is just going to be defined by administrative ruling, and we all know what
Al Quaeda BATF's standards are.
