Abortion is not a major issue for me but I notice that the question here is quite flawed.
Since when does a typical abortion involve a situation in which a the abortive mother would be permanently damaged in some way if the abortion did not take place?
The pregnancy was wanted, but other things came up that would make her unable to care for the child and difficult for her to put the child up for adoption or for the child to be adopted. OR The pregnancy is so unwanted, she might contemplate suicide or be unable to take care of herself or have other children if she brought the child to term.
And since when are those situations typical? Also, while I'll certainly grant that carrying a child to term and then giving it up for adoption because the mother is either unwilling or unable to care for it after birth will cause a considerable disruption in that mother's life, it doesn't normally create permanent damage.
Well, the child may never be adopted and sometimes it does cause psychosis to carry a child to term and give it up on the spot. Then again, there are open adoptions and that lowers these incidents.
The demand for babies to adopt in the United States is such that even problem babies get adopted. (There is a shortage of people willing to adopt older kids but that is at best peripheral to the issue of abortion.) As for your psychosis, that is certainly not typical.