huh?
kind of hard to change the definition of "salvation" back and forth throughout chapters 10 & 11, for it would seem to me that any reader of Romans 10 & 11 can tell that the "salvation" Paul is referring to is general spiritual salvation and that it is a salvation that will be a shared by BOTH Gentile and Jew:
...therefore, he is not talking about "saving them from the coming judgment upon Jerusalem that took place in A.D. 70.", rather he is talking about saving their souls.
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Paul is simply saying that the majority of Jews will reject Christ (though a remnant have accepted him, since there has always been a remnant of Jews who have remained faithful to God), and the rejection of the Jews thus provides a door for Gentiles to be saved by Christ; then after the Gentiles are saved, the majority of Jews will also accept Christ and be saved. And Paul goes on to explain to the Gentiles that they should keep this in mind so that they do not look down upon Jewish unbelievers.
And the trump card to this argument is that this pattern (rejected by Jews, then accepted by Gentiles, then accepted by Jews) is foreshadowed in the Genesis account of Joseph, who has always been viewed (by both Judaism and Christianity) as a prototype of Christ: Joseph was rejected by his fellow Jews, then accepted by the Gentiles, provided salvation for the Gentiles, then accepted by the Jews who had previously rejected him, and thus provided salvation to the Jews.
it is pretty straightforward, meshes completely with scripture; and, as a bi-product, keeps the context of Romans chapters 10 & 11 current and applicable to any believer in Christ over the last 2000 years.
