You desire to criminalize communications with which you disagree is not terribly suprising.
So if someone engages in spreading malicious lies (as was alleged here, but will likely be difficult to prove unless there is considerably more to this story than was given in your link) that should not be considered a criminal act?
However, the United States has a strong prohibition on prior restraints.
True, but this case has nothing to do with prior restraint, CARL. It deals with an alleged act of harassment in which the accused is being dealt with after the supposed harassment took place. Indeed, no charges were filed until after the election during which the harassment allegedly took place.
The rest of your assertions are sheer lies (again, not suprising).
Name one assertion I have made about this case that is a lie. Just one. At best, you have misinterpreted my words. At worst, you are again engaging in baseless assertions of your own about me.
Well, lets take you allegations one at a time.
First, you stated:
"So if someone engages in spreading malicious lies (as was alleged here, but will likely be difficult to prove unless there is considerably more to this story than was given in your link) that should not be considered a criminal act?"
Sorry, but what was alleged was "harassment," not that the statement was a lie.
Indeed, you seem to acknowledge that when you note that "but it will likely be difficult to prove."
Also, while this may come as a flash to you, but the burden of proof in a criminal case is even greater on the plaintiff (prosecutor) than in a civil case.
So, NO, this should NOT be considered a criminal act.
Oh, and while you have made wild (and mutually contradictory) arguments, I have cited legal precedent.
Here's another:
State v. Hoffman, 149 N.J. 564 (1997).