Concept of gay and straight didn't exist at the time-exactly, Paul condemns having sex with the same sex and he condemns it for everyone. The early Christians, who understood the Ancient Greek text better than any of us ever could, universally understood this. While much of ancient Greek and Roman homosexuality was child molestation, not all of it was. Same-sex marriages were occasionally performed (Nero was involved in same-sex weddings). Nero was known to have relationships with men, both adults and children. Elagabalus played the part of the bride in a marriage to another man. There is also the story of Hadrian and his male lover. To say that nothing resembling modern homosexuality existed in ancient times is inaccurate. To say that God only put a condemnation of homosexual relations in the Bible because such relations were exploitative implies that God couldn't have foreseen modern homosexual relations.
The text says that natural relations for men are with women, and states that the men abandoned relations with women for relations with the same gender. There is no mention of prostitutes. There is no mention of young boys. It refers to men having sex with men, not boys. It also said that the women were doing the same thing that the men were. Were women seeking out prostitutes? It says
Even their women, implying that what the women were doing was typically a male vice. And homosexuality certainly seems to have been more common among men than it was among women in ancient times.
Furthermore, look at 1 Corinthians 6:9-10:
ἀρσενοκοῖται means men having sex with men. In the Greek translation of Leviticus (which Paul almost certainly had access to), the same word is used in the condemnation of homosexual relations. With all this in mind, I can't come to any other conclusion than that the Bible opposes homosexual relations.