The Pope drops Catholic ban on condoms in historic shift (user search)
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  The Pope drops Catholic ban on condoms in historic shift (search mode)
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Author Topic: The Pope drops Catholic ban on condoms in historic shift  (Read 2112 times)
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shua
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« on: August 08, 2012, 06:37:32 PM »

"The Catholic Church's position on condoms is giving people AIDS!"

Catholic Church allows for use of condoms against AIDS.

"Eh, who cares about AIDS. They're still against contraceptives!"
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shua
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« Reply #1 on: August 10, 2012, 11:11:11 PM »

But, doesn't giving the go ahead to use condoms while practicing fornication cause a moral contradiction?  Might was well say it is ok to wear a mask while robbing a bank.

That's basically what he said, which is also why the entire story was pretty much a bunch of nothing. He just said, if you have AIDs and are going to have sex anyway it would be better to wear a condom. It boils down to saying fornication and contraception is less wrong than fornication and murder. The pope never said contraception wasn't wrong, as many in the media have protrayed the statement.

This is in part a clarification of St. Thomas Aquinas's teaching (which is neither held as definitively true or definitively false) that contraception is a worse sin than fornication itself.
What about condoms for use of married couples where one is HIV+?

This is about the principle of double effect, isn't it?  - That you can't have the good of protection of disease without the (lesser) bad of the contraception.   
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shua
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« Reply #2 on: August 10, 2012, 11:21:33 PM »
« Edited: August 11, 2012, 12:02:29 AM by shua, gm »

This is about the principle of double effect, isn't it?  - That you can't have the good of protection of disease without the (lesser) bad of the contraception.   

Uh...I don't think that's what that means.
My understanding is that one precondition for double effect is that both effects proceed necessarily from the same action.
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shua
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« Reply #3 on: August 11, 2012, 12:55:51 AM »

No, condom use is not "permitted" persay under any circumstances. The pope just said it was less wrong than infecting the other person with AIDs. For married couples where one partner has AIDs the Church teaches they should practice celibacy. Now, obviously by extension it would be less wrong to use a condom than to infect the other partner, but the Church condones neither.
That position absolutizes the procreative aspect of sex at the expense of everything else.
Isn't sex within marriage also a positive good in terms of its role in cementing the relationship of husband and wife?
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shua
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« Reply #4 on: August 12, 2012, 12:24:58 AM »
« Edited: August 12, 2012, 12:30:12 AM by shua, gm »

No, condom use is not "permitted" persay under any circumstances. The pope just said it was less wrong than infecting the other person with AIDs. For married couples where one partner has AIDs the Church teaches they should practice celibacy. Now, obviously by extension it would be less wrong to use a condom than to infect the other partner, but the Church condones neither.
That position absolutizes the procreative aspect of sex at the expense of everything else.
Isn't sex within marriage also a positive good in terms of its role in cementing the relationship of husband and wife?

Yes but not while using artificial contraceptives, which are a sin against nature by destroying the telos of the sex act itself. It comes down to the same argument as to whether or not condoms are permitted normally between married men and women. Also, notice the name given to the Sacrament of Marriage in the Church: Holy Matrimony. Matrimony is motherhood; ie. the two cannot be separated from one another.
But does not sex and marriage have a multifaceted telos?  Otherwise, sex (and even marriage) between an infertile couple would be sinful since it could not result in a child, as would sex timed so as to avoid conception as realisticidealist mentioned. 

It seems to me there is an obvious argument here to allow condoms for disease prevention without embracing contraception for contraception's sake, and I'm surprised the Catholic Church isn't taking it.
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shua
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« Reply #5 on: August 12, 2012, 01:27:40 AM »

No, condom use is not "permitted" persay under any circumstances. The pope just said it was less wrong than infecting the other person with AIDs. For married couples where one partner has AIDs the Church teaches they should practice celibacy. Now, obviously by extension it would be less wrong to use a condom than to infect the other partner, but the Church condones neither.
That position absolutizes the procreative aspect of sex at the expense of everything else.
Isn't sex within marriage also a positive good in terms of its role in cementing the relationship of husband and wife?

Yes but not while using artificial contraceptives, which are a sin against nature by destroying the telos of the sex act itself. It comes down to the same argument as to whether or not condoms are permitted normally between married men and women. Also, notice the name given to the Sacrament of Marriage in the Church: Holy Matrimony. Matrimony is motherhood; ie. the two cannot be separated from one another.
But does not marriage have a multifaceted telos?  Otherwise, sex between an infertile couple would be sinful since it could not result in a child, as would sex timed so as to avoid conception as realisticidealist mentioned.

There is, but it still has to be open to the conception. In the infertility case, openness to conception doesn't take much since they aren't able to have children (though I know several people who have been born to "infertile" parents).

As for NFP, basically the Church says it's okay because it does not involve undertaking some artificial action to prevent pregnancy; since pregnancy is naturally impossible for some period of time. St. Thomas Aquinas taught contraception was a sin against nature. Since the method realisticidealist discussed is natural it is permitted. However, this does not mean any sex act is licit if it doesn't require artificial contraceptives; it still needs to be the same act (vaginal intercourse between a married man and woman).

If the primary criteria is openness to conception rather than what is natural in the usual sense, then timing sex with the purpose of avoiding conception should be worse than the contraception that is incidental to condom use.  (I'm tempted to agree here with an argument by Erasmus that celibacy and contraception are morally equivalent. Tongue )

Maybe Thomas Aquinas didn't envision certain scenarios when developing his moral system.  Haven't the Jesuits developed an approach that allows for moral principles to be weighed  differently depending on the circumstances?
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shua
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E: 1.29, S: -0.70

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« Reply #6 on: August 28, 2012, 12:21:09 AM »

If the primary criteria is openness to conception rather than what is natural in the usual sense, then timing sex with the purpose of avoiding conception should be worse than the contraception that is incidental to condom use.  (I'm tempted to agree here with an argument by Erasmus that celibacy and contraception are morally equivalent. Tongue )

Maybe Thomas Aquinas didn't envision certain scenarios when developing his moral system.  Haven't the Jesuits developed an approach that allows for moral principles to be weighed  differently depending on the circumstances?

Aquinas did not understand NFP as practiced today since ovulation wasn't understood until the 20th Century, so when he called contraception a sin against nature, he was clearly referring to an unnatural method, which today would be similar to taking a pill or wearing a ring or condom. Think about what each means doing in a sex act: for an artificial method you have to wear something over the genitalia or take some sort of medicine. You're clearly doing something in a positive sense to have sex and not procreate. For NFP, you aren't doing something, you're not doing something. You're practicing abstinence during the fruitful periods. Otherwise, it would be a sin to have sex outside of that 72 hour period, which would also be problematic conclusion. The difference isn't something you can determine by looking at studies of the effectiveness of each in the same manner as one considers a subsidy in the political world, but rather the intrinsic nature of the act in question.

I'm not sure what you're referring to about the Jesuits, but there may be some system either I am not familiar with or am used to hearing it identified differently.

Regarding the Jesuits, I was thinking of casuist morality.

Aquinas bases his argument against contraception on the assertion that procreation is the natural end of sex.  Allowance for NFP must at the very least contradict this understanding of the nature of sex, since it allows that there can be some instances of sex which do not have procreation as its proper natural end.
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