has the end of the cold war given the democrats an electoral advantage?

[freepcrusher]

Even though I think Sean Trende is a right wing hack, he does make some good points in his book "The Lost Majority". If one notices, from 1952 to 1988; the republicans had a winning formula for presidential elections which was to rack up big margins in the suburbs and to peel off key ethnic groups (especially catholics).

If one notices, the difference between 1988 and 1992 has been huge in analyzing elections and 1992 was the beginning of states no longer being winnable for republicans and has created the "blue wall" of 242 electoral votes.

1992 was also the first election after the fall of the berlin wall and the dissolution of the soviet union. Does anyone here agree that the creation of the "blue wall" has its roots in the end of the cold war? Republicans could no longer run on the issue of keeping america safe or accuse democrats as appeasers and had many people who voted republican out of anticommunism (like Markos Moulitsas) started voting less republican.