Should voting ever be tied to land ownership?

[muon2]

No, if it involves elected offices.

However, if the subject is a special taxing area for an improvement such as a street, sidewalk, or stoplight, then the answer could be yes. If the area is proposed to be imposed only on a few owners, for their benefit, the landowners should be able to "opt out" by majority vote.

[muon2]

No, if it involves elected offices.

However, if the subject is a special taxing area for an improvement such as a street, sidewalk, or stoplight, then the answer could be yes. If the area is proposed to be imposed only on a few owners, for their benefit, the landowners should be able to "opt out" by majority vote.

BTW, what I describe is the law in IL, and I suspect in other states as well. The number of properties involved is determined,  and voting is done by a notarized petition.

[muon2]

This pretty much sums up my opinion:



Actually, I couldn't find an image that just said "no." But that is my position. Phillip, or anyone, explain why the hell this idea is even slightly reasonable. It makes NO sense.

I'm not sure if you are objecting to my example or not. My point is that there are different form of majority vote that take place. I don't know if the original question refered to elected officials only, or all forms of majority-based governmental decisions. If the former, I agree, if the latter, I'll provide more examples.