I don't understand what the deal is with the border between the 1st and 2nd in the GOP map/current map. What's the reason for the 1st hooking underneath the 2nd. Is it to keep incumbents in their districts or something. I actually like the GOP map better except for that part.
I believe that was done in 1991 when Kentucky lost it's seventh U.S. House seat. The Democrats, whom I assume were in complete control back then, were probably thinking that the fouth district would be somewhat of a Republican vote sink (paradoxically it was the only Dem seat in the state at the end of the life of those lines), the fifth would be a tossup but fairly safe for a pork-spending incumbent after 1992, the first and second would continue to elect conservative Democrats (Tom Barlow messed that up by winning the 1992 KY-01 primary), the third district would remain a Democratic stronghold, and the R-held sixth district would likely be won back (that actually worked in the short term, and is working again now). Obviously things didn't work out according to plan.
