The fact that Dems underpoll in Nevada should cancel out the fact that it's a partisan Dem poll, IMO.
Just wondering, why do dems tend to under poll?
Elderly latino voters who speak a small amount of English won't be telling people on the phone who they're voting for.
Just curious. Any evidence (cites, etc) that Democrats "underpoll" in Nevada? Turnout in Nevada was R+4 in 2004, and as Umengus pointed out, D+8 in 2008. So where are we coming up with this "underpoll" thing (of course, besides your own personal speculation)?
