The Freedom of Association argument makes no sense. Why is my Freedom of Association any less impacted by a supposedly neutral map where I’m “naturally” put in a district with a bunch of Democrats who I don’t agree with and vote against, instead of a Gerrymandered map where I get either the same result or (by some miracle in a state like New York) get put in a district that actually elects my Republican candidate of choice? This cannot be solved, except by proportional representation.
Because what the Constitution forbids is for the government to single you out based on your political ideology. When your state legislature intentionally dilutes your voting power based on your party affiliation, that is viewpoint-based discrimination in violation of your First Amendment rights.
The government is doing that either way by putting me in a district with a bunch of Democrats. Whether that is under the guise of supposedly "neutral" principles doesn't matter. The effect is the same - my voice is being diluted by Democrats.
And yes, the answer is somewhat clouded by my view that no redistricting principles are really neutral and always involve political calculations of some stripe. In other words, there's always (allegedly) discriminatory intent. Even the Muon rules depend on a calculation that cities need not remain whole. That tends to favor Democrats, as cities tend to be Democratic, and being able to split cities allows perfectly legal abominations like the city of Chicago dominating Illinois' maps through baconstrips.
Redistricting has always been politically motivated, and always will be. How it is done is a political question that the courts should and traditionally have stayed out of, absent VRA issues. It's a thicket that the courts really should avoid falling into.
Unfortunately, my prediction is that Justice Kennedy will cave, and create some unworkable balancing test that will muddy the redistricting waters for decades to come.