RFayette
Junior Chimp
Posts: 9,958
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« on: November 03, 2017, 06:44:17 PM » |
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I understand you come from a Jewish background and my understanding is that their tradition considers the suffering servant referred to in Isaiah 53 as Israel. If this is the case, how does one explain Isaiah 53:8 when it refers to him (the servant) being punished for the sins of "my people," since the author himself was Jewish? For me (and many others) this is by far the most compelling Messianic prophesy and so I am very curious what the non-Christian perspective on it is.
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