Spanish elections and politics II: Catalan elections on February 14, 2021 (user search)
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  Spanish elections and politics II: Catalan elections on February 14, 2021 (search mode)
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Author Topic: Spanish elections and politics II: Catalan elections on February 14, 2021  (Read 197167 times)
EastAnglianLefty
Jr. Member
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Posts: 1,592


« on: April 28, 2019, 04:50:56 PM »

With 92.27% of the vote counted it is

PSOE   28.79%
PP       16.69%
C        15.79%
UP       14.31%
VOX     10.24%

Two blocs pretty much identical which is a disaster for the Right.

Worth noting that the left has almost always won. Spain has always been a left of center country.

This is the first time the right wins 2 elections back to back in the popular vote, and only the fourth time ever after 2000, 2011 and 2016.

I'm not sure I understand. Adding that up makes 43.1% for the left bloc and 42.7% for the right bloc. How can the right claim a popular vote victory?
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EastAnglianLefty
Jr. Member
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Posts: 1,592


« Reply #1 on: May 17, 2020, 04:53:30 AM »

Quote
“We are in a dictatorial system, and I know what I’m talking about,” said Magdalena, a local resident who works as a lawyer.

Was I the only one mentally adding, "because I used to work for Franco" to this comment?
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EastAnglianLefty
Jr. Member
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Posts: 1,592


« Reply #2 on: August 04, 2020, 08:18:18 AM »

why is criminal allowed to leave?

Well for one thing, however damning the evidence he hasn't actually been convicted of anything - or indeed yet charged? If that had happened, things would doubtless be different.

Not sure if this applies to the British Queen, but it is worth noting that it is actually impossible to charge the king for any crime commited while he was the head of state. So any bribes he took up until 2014 are 100% legal and he cannot be prosecuted for it.

Juan Carlos I could have murdered somebody in broad daylight and he would not have spent a single day in prison.

The fact that the king cannot be judged or sentenced to anything is also recognized in the Spanish Constitution:

Quote from: Article 56.3
The person of the King is inviolable and shall not be held accountable.

As we don't have a written constitution, I don't think there's a clear answer to that. It probably depends upon whether you think the trial of Charles I was legally valid or not.
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EastAnglianLefty
Jr. Member
***
Posts: 1,592


« Reply #3 on: August 04, 2020, 08:43:48 AM »

Oh, arguing that the court had no right to try him was Charles' entire defence. His problem was that the court very much did not agree with him.
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