"the Antichrist" teaching is a myth

[Gustaf]

The Anti-Christ is no one individual. The Anti-Christ is any person who denies Christ and his teachings.

You're absolutely right.

The antichrists spoken of in 1st and 2nd John has no relavance whatsoever to the man of lawlessness  in 11Thes.2.

Our Protestant forefathers actually went outside the prophetic scriptures and borrowed the term from 1st and 2nd John, and applied it to the man of lawlessness.

Had they been mindful of the prophetic scriptures they would have recognized that the man of lawlessness is that "ten horns" that are upon Babylon in Revelation 17, and thus COULD NOT be one individual man.

But, because of their consuming hatred for the Catholic Church and for the Pope, they simply had to find terms in the prophetic scriptures which would fit those 2 entities.  Thus, they applied the term "harlot" to the Catholic Church, and the term "Antichrist" to the Pope.

Sadly, that hatred is still alive and well today in many of the Evangelical and Pentacostal churches of America. 

     Wait, did you just say that African-Americans=the man of lawlessness?

     Did you also use the number of horns as proof that they do not refer to an individual? By your logic then, the ten horns could not be African-Americans since last time I checked, there are more than ten African-Americans.

     Wait, so you mean that African-Americans deny Christ & his teachings? Guess all those historically black churches are not what they seem.

     Seriously though, could you try to be internally consistent with your arguments?

Scriptures do not say that the man of lawlessness "denies Christ and his teachings".  It says that, they "oppose" and "exalt themselves" above all that is called God, or that is worshipped."

In other words, they oppose and exalt themselves above the white Europeans, ie, "the God-man".

As per your comment about "the ten horns"....Don't be stupid!

Don't be hypocritical!

[Gustaf]

In modern-day terms, which is what these scriptures are about, "sacrifice and oblation" means "daily worship and prayer".

The Bible wasn't written in modern day terms, so why would it be translated to words that mean something else.

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France was too a Christian nation, just as all European nations were back in the day.

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Jesus said in Matt.24:15,  "When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation "spoken of by Daniel the prophet" stand in the holy place...."

That abomination of which Daniel spoke is found in chapter 11, verse 17, which says, "and he (America) shall give him (shall give the man of lawlessness) the daughter of women (America's white daughters) corrupting her:  but she shall not stand on his side, neither be for him." 

"And they shall mingle themselves with the seed of men; but they shall not cleave one to another, even as iron is not mixed with clay", Dan.2:43 says.

And then there's the scripture in Rev.17:16 which says,
"And the ten horns  (man of lawlessness) which thou sawest upon the beast (upon Babylon/America); these shall hate the whore (shall hate the white Americans), and shall make her desolate and naked, and shall "eat her flesh", and burn her with fire."

Bet you don't know what "eat her flesh" means.

So, the whore and the 10 kings are BOTH the white Americans? The plot thickens...